SteveMc wrote: I too don’t know how I can make this any clearer. You are ignoring what I am saying.
Really. When you ignore my questions, I repeat them and underline them. Then you ignore them again. If you don't respond to a point, I repeat it (actually, I've been lax and often let you get away with it). Conversely, you make this claim but you don't give any example of anything I have ignored. I go through your posts and respond to every question and each point. If I miss a point you think is important, simply refer to it.
Let me jump down to the part I think you were anxious for me to get to in Till's Magdalene problem:
You mean respond to the problem? The problem you solved back in October? Excellent.
Till
I assume that inerrantists are willing to admit that the NT in bound volumes didn't exist until many years after the gospels were written, so a reader of Matthew very likely would have been unable to consult Mark, Luke, and John to see if they shed any "additional light" on what had happened. If nothing else, Christians living at the time Matthew's gospel was completed could not have had access to Luke and John, since (as most biblical scholars agree) they were written after Matthew. Therefore, the picture they formed in their minds after reading Matthew's gospel could not have included anything that was written in gospels that came after Matthew's.
Till
It is therefore evident that Matthew meant for his readers to understand that Mary Magdalene heard an angel announce that Jesus had risen AND that she ran from the tomb with great joy after hearing this AND that she met Jesus and touched him after she had run from the tomb.
So my question to those who defend the Bible as consistent and without error, is this: If Mary Magdalene had been told by an angel that Jesus had risen and if she had even seen Jesus and touched him after leaving the tomb, why did she go tell Peter that the body of Jesus had been stolen?
STEVE
In the top paragraph he excludes reader access to the other gospels and tries to establish that Matthew said one thing, namely that the WOMEN heard from the angel that Jesus had risen from the dead (which I agree with).
Well, what else could you say? I keep forgetting that there is no solution to your problem so there should be no surprise that we don't get one. Again, to preserve any semblance of biblical literalism, inerrancy or even consistency you absolutely must have these two things:
a) Consistency within each gospel account. Each story must be consistent and make sense on it's own
b) The separate stories need to be consistent with the other versions. Each story must be consistent and make sense when combined with the other versions.
As Till has shown, you can't do this. In "the top paragraph" Till is making point (a). Matthew needs to make sense on its own. *Obviously.*
Then in the second and third paragraphs forces a question upon the text of Matthew which comes from reading the gospel of John...
Right. In his second and third paragraphs Till make is making point (b). And it is your belief system of inerrancy and consistency that is requiring this, not his. When the story according to John, is merged with Matthew, Matthew's version no longer works, reads right or makes sense, as Till shows.
...Till states that it is unlikely the readers had access to John with not one shred of proof that they did not.
No, Till points to the requirements of (a) and (b), which are imminently reasonable and required by *your* doctrine, not ours. Matthew must make sense on it's own terms. Which it does, until you try to make it fit with these other versions, then it does not make sense.
Even if they did not have it there would be no question in the minds of the readers.
Obviously there is a question because:
a) all of the standard mainstream Christian scholarship is against you
b) we are still talking about this about 1,900 years later.
If the readers did have access to the gospel of John they would have seen that there were two trips to the tomb by the women,...
But then if there was a smart freethinking disciple around (admittedly unlikely), he would say... "hey, that's not what Matthew said!" Which of course, as Till pointed out, it's not what Matthew said.
the second trip is exactly when the announcement would have taken place just like it is clear to any reader today. NO CONFUSION!
Except this insertion makes a complete hash of Matthew's story.
The confusion only comes when Till forces the conclusion that the women saw the angel roll the stone and immediately speaks those words to them.
Actually no. This is not required. You are conflating two problems. One of them is simply based upon textual evidence that if you insert a separate trip and a couple different Mary's in between a sentence of Matthew, then you have Matthew referring to a different set of Mary's that he shows no knowledge of. That's your problem.
There is no textual evidence that this happened, only Till’s forcing of Western English grammar, syntax, and literary styling.
No, Till is requiring consistency. He is requiring (a) and (b). And (a) and (a) are not only entirely reasonable, they are required by the doctrine of biblical accuracy you are arguing for.
Some critical commentators see such a drastic change of focus between verse 1 of Matthew 28, compared to 2-4 and what follows from verse 5 on that they believe 2-4 may be an interpolation.
I bet in order to get out of this problem some inerrantists have been tempted to use the "copyist error" or "interpolation" excuse. But you don't want to play that card very often, or people won't trust your Bible. And you would have to use it a lot to even begin to address your Easter problems. And actually, there is no drastic change in Matthew. His story reads perfectly, until you try to make the other versions fit with it. This makes such a mess, it cannot be done.
That the women saw the angel roll the stone, and immediately heard the angel speak is an assumption, pure and simple, and one that is completely erroneous.
Take that up with Matthew. In his version, that's exactly how it reads. Plain as day. You would see this if you didn't have an absurd doctrine if inerrancy to defend. Again:
Matthew 28
1 Now late on the sabbath day, as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week, came Mary Magdalene and the other Mary to see the sepulchre.
2 And behold, there was a great earthquake; for an angel of the Lord descended from heaven, and came and rolled away the stone, and sat upon it.
3 His appearance was as lightning, and his raiment white as snow:
4 and for fear of him the watchers did quake, and became as dead men.
5 And the angel answered and said unto the women, Fear not ye; for I know that ye seek Jesus, who hath been crucified.
6 He is not here; for he is risen, even as he said. Come, see the place where the Lord lay.
7 And go quickly, and tell his disciples, He is risen from the dead; and lo, he goeth before you into Galilee; there shall ye see him: lo, I have told you.
8 And they departed quickly from the tomb with fear and great joy, and ran to bring his disciples word.
ASV
STEVE
They never saw the angel roll the stone at all.
Your claim makes no sense. Read the eight verses of Matthew above.
If the readers only have Matthew they understand that an angel rolled the stone away and spoke to the women.
Right. And Matthew's version needs to be consistent and make sense on it's own. We know the Bible wasn't stitched together until centuries later. These gospels were floating around all over on their own. See here a list of a bunch of them that didn't make it into the final edit:
From the Gelasian decree found
here.
...firstly we confess that the synod of Sirmium called together by Constantius Caesar the son of Constantine through the Prefect Taurus is damned then and now and for ever.
the Itinerary in the name of Peter the apostle, which is called the nine books of the holy Clement apocryphal
the Acts in the name of the apostle Andrew apocryphal
the Acts in the name of the apostle Thomas apocryphal
the Acts in the name of the apostle Peter apocryphal
the Acts in the name of the apostle Philip apocryphal
the Gospel in the name of Mathias apocryphal
the Gospel in the name of Barnabas apocryphum
the Gospel in the name of James the younger apocryphum
the Gospel in the name of the apostle Peter apocryphum
the Gospel in the name of Thomas which the Manichaeans use apocryphum
the Gospels in the name of Bartholomew apocrypha
the Gospels in the name of Andrew
...
That's about 20% of them from the list at that link. Be thankful that you don't have to harmonize all of those too. The Catholics, tired of this mess at least cut your job down for you, but it still can't be done. These books were written separately and existed separately and the gospels are filled with blatant contradictions that cannot be reconciled with each other (as my book shows).
If they have Matthew AND John they understand that an angel rolled the stone away and spoke to the women.
No, I think they would understand that Matthew's version suddenly becomes untenable with the others. And this is only considering a few sentences!
...with having the two gospels the readers understand there was a time gap between the two events.
A time gap, a separate trip, insert some Mary's and off you go. cute.
That is a CLARIFICATION NOT A CONTRADICTION...
Hey Steve, since I am getting a little bored with your Easter excuses for the moment, let me ask you another similar question:
At Mark 10:2-12 we have Jesus saying that anyone who divorces and remarries is committing adultery. No exceptions. At Matthew 5:31-32, in his version of the same story, he has his Jesus say that you can divorce on the grounds of "fornication," and those who do may remarry. This is an exception. (Note: no need to get into the Greek here, it doesn't matter what the exception is)
Was Matthew just "clarifying" Mark by flatly contradicting the
no exception in Mark's version of the same story? This is a rather important difference and poor Christians have been confused ever since.
I have answered and dismantled the Mary Magdalene Problem as posted by Till, and that is the long and the short of it.
Well, that's not been my understanding, but readers can see what they think.
What happened to your promise to send me your book and additional material:
Dar
On February 4th:
I'll send the book shortly, with a bonus (the Fabulous Fayetteville Freethinker Fact-filled Family Fun Folder).
So far nothing. Perhaps it was all lost in the mail. But I didn’t ask for any of it. I only wanted to help you out. So if you haven’t sent it, just keep it, and the money.
Just so readers know, Steve didn't send me money to buy my book,
which is $16 (I just lowered the price!), he just wanted to send me $10 one day, out of the blue. Perhaps God told him to do it just like God told him I do something with "music." Incidentally, people sending me money in the mail is something I very much approve of and to you readers out there, it is encouraged.
So I told him, don't send the money unless you want to get a free copy of my book. As to when I would send it, I was using "shortly" in the biblical sense. You know:
"The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave unto him, to shew unto his servants things which
must shortly come to pass;…" Rev. 1:1
So, shortly as in 2,000 years, give or take.
Actually, it's sitting here on my desk. I just haven't been by the Poste. I'm a very busy beaver and once it wasn't going to get to you before your trip, it wasn't a priority. So as it says in the good book:
"But the end of all things is at hand: be ye therefore sober, and watch unto prayer." 1 Peter 4:7
Let me say: "The delivery of your book is at hand, be ye therefore sober, and watch for it, with prayer." And unlike the promise in the Bible, it will happen in a few days, "shortly," rather than... never.